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Which three statements about the Cisco Easy VPN feature are true？（）
A . If the VPN server is configured for Xauth， the VPN client waits for a username / password challenge.
B . The Cisco Easy VPN feature only supports transform sets that provide authentication and encryption.
C . The VPN client initiates aggressive mode （AM） if a pre-shared key is used for authentication during the IKE phase 1 process.
D . The VPN client verifies a server username/password challenge by using a AAA authentication server that supports TACACS+ or RADIUS.
E . The VPN server can only be enabled on Cisco PIX Firewalls and Cisco VPN 3000 series concentrators.
F . When connecting with a VPN client，the VPN server must be configured for ISAKMP group 1，2 or 5.
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Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database(CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?（）
A . System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B . Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C . The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D . Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E . System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.
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Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these statements are true? （）
A . All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.
B . Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C . The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D . All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E . All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F . The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
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Which three statements regarding the server parameter file （SPFILE） are true（）
A . An SPFILE is a binary file.
B . An SPFILE cannot reside on a client.
C . An SPFILE cannot contain static parameters.
D . An SPFILE can store changes persistently across instance restarts.
E . An SPFILE can be read by the database server， but it is not written to by the server.
F . An SPFILE must be created manually， before creating a database， even if you use the DatabaseConfiguration Assistant （DBCA） to create the database.
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You need to configure a new Company Catalyst 3560 switch for a VOIP-enabled office. Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on this switch？（）
A . The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set up to 0.
B . The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
C . PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured.
D . The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
E . The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
F . When the voice VLAN feature is enabled， all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port
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You have configured router R1 with HSRP， using the standard defaults. Which three statements are true of a default HSRP configuration？（）
A . The Standby hello time is 2 seconds.
B . Two HSRP groups are configured.
C . The Standby track interface priority is 10.
D . The Standby hold time is 10 seconds
E . The Standby priority is 100.
F . The Standby delay is 3 seconds.
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You have enabled resumable space allocation in your database by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUTparameter set to a nonzero value.Which three statements about resumable space allocation are true? （）(Choose three.)
A . Even with resumable space allocation enabled for your database, you can disable resumable space allocation for a single session.
B . A resumable statement is suspended only if an out of space error occurs.
C . When a resumable statement is suspended, the transaction that contains the statement is also suspended.
D . A resumable statement can only be suspended and resumed once during the execution of the statement.
E . You can query the V$SESSION_WAIT dynamic performance view to identify the statements that are suspended for a sessio
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The InnoDB engine has a feature known as clustered indexes. Which three statements are true about clustered indexes as used in InnoDB?（）
A . A primary key must exist for creation of a clustered index
B . A clustered index allows fulltext searching within InnoDB
C . The first unique index is always used as a clustered index and not a primary key
D . A clustered index provides direct access to a page containing row data
E . If no indexes exist, a hidden clustered index is generated based on row IDs
F . A primary key is used as a clustered index
G . A clustered index is a grouping of indexes from different tables into a global index for faster searching
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Which three statements are true regarding the fine-grained auditing （FGA）？（）
A . FGA is possible on SELECT statements only.
B . The audit trail for FGA is stored in the FGA_LOG$ table.
C . The audit trail for FGA is stored in the AUD_LOG$ table.
D . FGA enables a SQL predicate to define when to audit an event.
E . FGA audits DELETE statements only when audit columns are specified.
F . FGA includes the SQL statement used by the user as part of the audit event entry.
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Examine these two statements:Which three are true about the MRKT tablespace?（）
A . The MRKT tablespace is created as a small file tablespace, because the file size is less than the minimum required for big file files.
B . The MRKT tablespace may be dropped if it has no contents.
C . Users who were using the old default tablespace will have their default tablespaces changed to the MRKT tablespace.
D . No more data files can be added to the tablespace.
E . The relative file number of the tablespace is not stored in rowids for the table rows that are stored in the MRKT tablespace.
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Which three characteristics are true of the ProtectLink Gateway product?（）
A . protects from spyware and phishing attacks
B . provides web server content filtering
C . provides encryption between a browser and a web server
D . is bundled in the SPS platform
E . blocks 97% of SPAM
F . provides content filtering for e-mail
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Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch？ （Choose three.）（）
A . The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B . The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C . The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D . When the voice VLAN feature is enabled， all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E . PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured.
F . The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.
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Which three statements are true regarding the logical structure of the Oracle database？（）
A . Each segment contains one or more extents.
B . Multiple tablespaces can share single data file.
C . A data block is the smallest unit of I/O for data files.
D . It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes in a database.
E . Each data block in the database always corresponds to one OS block.
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Which three concerning the use of the java.io.Serializable interface are true？（）
A . Objects from classes that use aggregation cannot be serialized.
B . Art object serialized on one JVM can be successfully deserialized on a different JVM.
C . The values in fields with the volatile modifier will NOT survive serialization anddeserialization.
D . The values in fields with the transient modifier will NOT survive serialization anddeserialization.
E . It is legal to serialize an object of a type that has a supertype that does NOT implement java.io.Serializable.
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Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true？ （）
A . EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B . By default， iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C . By default， the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D . EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E . By default， iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
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Which three statements are true about the application of QoS models？ （）
A . The DiffServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
B . The DiffServ model can be used to deliver QoS based upon IP precedence， or source and destination addresses.
C . The DiffServ model requires RSVP.
D . The best effort model is suitable for applications such as file transfer and e-mail
E . The IntServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
F . The IntServ model attempts to deliver a level of service based on the QoS specified by each packet
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Which three of the following descriptions are true about the firewall modes? （）
A . Transparent mode is layer 2.
B . Routed mode is layer 3.
C . Routed mode has 1 IP address.
D . Transparent mode has 1 IP address.
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Which three statements are true regarding the finegrained auditing （FGA）？（）
A . FGA is possible on SELECT statements only.
B . The audit trail for FGA is stored in the FGA_LOG$ table.
C . The audit trail for FGA is stored in the AUD_LOG$ table.
D . FGA enables a SQL predicate to define when to audit an event.
E . FGA audits DELETE statements only when audit columns are specified.
F . FGA includes the SQL statement used by the user as part of the audit event entry.
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Which three statements are true about the stages of database startup？（）
A . Data files and redo log files can be renamed at the MOUNT stage.
B . Control files are read at the OPEN stage for the location of data files.
C . Control files are required to bring the database to the NOMOUNT stage.
D . Data files and redo log files are made available to users at the OPEN stage.
E . Data files and online redo log files are checked for consistency while opening the database
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Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture?（）
A . Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B . A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C . PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D . Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E . Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F . PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G . Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
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Which three of the following descriptions are true about the firewall modes？ （）
A . Transparent mode is layer 2.
B . Routed mode is layer 3.
C . Routed mode has 1 IP address.
D . Transparent mode has 1 IP address.
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Which three statements about the EIGRP routing protocol are true?（）
A . EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including hello, database description (DBD), link state request (LSR), link - state update (LSU), and LSAck.
B . EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.10.
C . EIGRP will not form a neighbor relationship with another peer when their K values are mismatched.
D . EIGRP sends periodic hello packets to the multicast IP address 224.0.0.9.
E . E IGRP will form a neighbor relationship with another peer even when their K values are mismatched.
F . EIGRP supports five generic packet types, including hello, update, query, reply, and ACK packets.
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Which three are true regarding the use of outer joins?（）
A . You cannot use IN operator in a condition that involves an outerjoin.
B . You use (+) on both sides of the WHERE condition to perform an outerjoin.
C . You use (*) on both sides of the WHERE condition to perform an outerjoin.
D . You use an outerjoin to see only the rows that do not meet the join condition.
E . In the WHERE condition, you use (+) following the name of the column in the table without matching rows, to perform an outerjoin.
F . You cannot link a condition that is involved in an outerjoin to another condition by using the OR operator.
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Click the Exhibit button. Which three statements are true？（）
<img src='https://img2.soutiyun.com/ask/uploadfile/2019-02-04/34d2f9d266830942766705544d3f98b3.jpg' />
A.Compilation fails.
B.The code compiles and the output is 2.
C.If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, compilation would fail.
D.If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, compilation would fail.
E.If lines 16, 17 and 18 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be 2.
F.If lines 24, 25 and 26 were removed, the code would compile and the output would be 1.
