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Which statement best describes the Turbo ACL feature？ （）
A . The Turbo ACL feature processes ACLs into lookup tables for greater efficiency
B . The Turbo ACL feature leads to increased latency， because the time it takes to match the packet isvariable
C . The Turbo ACL feature leads to reduced latency， because the time it takes to match the packet is fixedand consistent
D . Turbo ACLs increase the CPU load by matching the packet to a predetermined list
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Which two statements best describe enhanced wireless security encryption？（）
A . TKIP protects RC4 encryption keys
B . CKIP and TKIP protect AES encryption keys
C . TKIP encryption is more processor intensive than AES encryption is
D . WPA requires TKIP encryption， whereas WPA2 supports AES encryption
E . WPA requires AES encryption， whereas WPA2 supports TKIP encryptio
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Which statement accurately describes a benefit provided by VTP（）。
A . VTP allows routing between VLANs.
B . VTP allows a single port to carry information to more than one VLAN.
C . VTP allows physically redundant links while preventing switching loops.
D . VTP allows switches to share VLAN configuration information.
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Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches？（）
A . Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B . if a switch receives a frame for an unkown destination，it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C . Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D . In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths，each swiched aegment will contain oneroot bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state.All other switches in that broadcast domain will haveonly one root port.
E . Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F . Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3address information.
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Which two statements best describe EtherChannel？（）
A . EtherChannel technology helps aggregate traffic grouping multiple，full-duplex point-to-point linkstogether
B . EtherChannel technology is based on the 802.1 IEEE stand
C . EtherChannel can aggregate up to 800 Mbps，8 Gbps，or Gbps of aggregate bandwidth for a Fast EtherChannel，Gigabit EtherChannel，or 10 Gigabit EtherChannel connection respectively
D . EtherChannel is defined for Rapid Spanning Tree for faster convergence
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Which of these statements best describes VPLS？（）
A . Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B . Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C . VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch， with each EMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D . Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices， the VPLS core must use STP.
E . When the provider experiences an outage， IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC re-learning is needed.
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Which statement best describes OSPF external LSAs （type 5）？（）
A . OSPF external LSAs are automatically flooded into all OSPF areas， unlike type 7 LSAs， which require that redistribution be configured.
B . External LSAs （type 5） are automatically changed to type 1 LSAs at ASBRs.
C . Type 5 LSAs are route summaries describing routes to networks outside the OSPF Autonomous System.
D . External network LSAs （type 5） redistributed from other routing protocols into OSPF are not permitted to flood into a stub area.
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Which statement best describes echo?（）
A . Echo is the discernable leak-through of your own Rx path into your own Tx path.
B . Echo is the discernable leak-through of the packets of your Rx path into your own Tx path.
C . Echo is the nonaudible leak-through of the packets of your Rx path into your own Tx path.
D . Echo is the audible leak-through of the packets from the transmit path into your own receive path.
E . Echo is the nonaudible leak-through of the packets of your Tx path into your own Rx path.
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Which two statements correctly describe VTP？（）
A . Transparent mode always has a configuration revision number of 0.
B . Transparent mode cannot modify a VLAN database.
C . Client mode cannot forward received VTP advertisements.
D . Client mode synchronizes its VLAN database from VTP advertisements.
E . Server mode can synchronize across VTP domains.
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Which two statements describe traffic policing？（）
A . Traffic bursts are smoothed out by queuing the excess traffic to produce a steadier flow of data
B . Excess traffic is buffered so that the traffic remains within the desired rate.
C . Packets that conform to traffic policies are not delayed.
D . Packet marking is available and allows excess packets to be re-marked with a lower priorit
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Which two statements best describe CBWFQ？（）
A . The CBWFQ scheduler provides a guaranteed minimum amount of bandwidth to each class.
B . CBWFQ services each class queue using a strict priority scheduler.
C . The class-default queue only supports WFQ.
D . Inside a class queue， processing is always FIFO， except for the class-default queue.
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Which two statements accurately describe a role?（）
A . A role can be given to a maximum of 1000 users.
B . A user can have access to a maximum of 10 roles.
C . A role can have a maximum of 100 privileges contained in it.
D . Privileges are given to a role by using the CREATE ROLE statement.
E . A role is a named group of related privileges that can be granted to the user.
F . A user can have access to several roles, and several users can be assigned the same role.
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Which two statements best describe Cisco IOS IP SLA？（）
A . only implemented between Cisco source and destination-capable devices
B . statistics provided by syslog， CLI， and SNMP
C . measures delay， jitter， packet loss， and voice quality
D . only monitors VoIP traffic flows
E . provides active monitoring
F . provides passive monitoring
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Which statement describes the Authentication Proxy feature？（）
A . All traffic is permitted from the inbound to the outbound interface upon successful authentication of the user.
B . A specific access profile is retrieved from a TACACS+ or RADIUS server and applied to an IOS Firewall based on user provided credentials.
C . Prior to responding to a proxy ARP，the router will prompt the user for a login and password which are authenticated based on the configured AAA policy.
D . The proxy server capabilities of the IOS Firewall are enabled upon successful authentication of the user.
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Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF?（）
A . It supports VLSM.
B . It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C . It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D . It increases routing overhead on the network.
E . It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F . It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
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Which three statements accurately describe IOS Firewall configurations？（）
A . The IP inspection rule can be applied in the inbound direction on the secured interface
B . The IP inspection rule can be applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface
C . The ACL applied in the inbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extendedACL.
D . For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall， the access-list for thereturning traffic must be a standard ACL
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Which statement describes the rule of split horizon?（）
A . Only router can split boundaries(horizons)between concentric networks.
B . All distance vector protocols require fall routes that may cause momentary loops as the topology changes.
C . Networks can only remain fully converged if all information about routes is sent out all active interfaces.
D . Information about a route should not be sent back in the direction from which the original update came.
E . Each AS must keep routing tables converged to prevent dead routes from being advertised across the AS boundary.
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Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF？（）
A . It supports VLSM.
B . It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C . It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D . It increases routing overhead on the network.
E . It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F . It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
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Which of these statements best describes VPLS?（）
A . Neither broadcast nor multicast traffic is ever flooded in VPLS.
B . Multicast traffic is flooded but broadcast traffic is not flooded in VPLS.
C . VPLS emulates an Ethernet switch, with eachEMS being analogous to a VLAN.
D . Because U-PE devices act as IEEE 802.1 devices, the VPLS core must use STP.
E . When the provider experiences an outage, IP re-routing restores PW connectivity and MAC relearning is needed.
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Which statement describes Reverse Route Injection （RRI）？（）
A . A static route that points towards the Cisco Easy VPN server is created on the remote client.
B . A static route is created on the Cisco Easy VPN server for the internal IP address of each VPN client.
C . A default route is injected into the route table of the remote client.
D . A default route is injected into the route table of the Cisco Easy VPN server.
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Which two statements describe the Cisco implementation of VLANs?（）
A . VLAN 1 is the default Ethernet VLAN.
B . CDP advertisements are only sent on VLAN 1002.
C . By default, the management VLAN is VLAN 1005.
D . By default, the switch IP address is in VLAN 1005.
E . VLAN 1002 through 1005 are automatically created and cannot be deleted.
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Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches?（）
A . Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B . if a switch receives a frame for an unkown destination,it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C . Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D . In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths,each switched aegment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state.All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
E . Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F . Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3 address information.
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Which statement correctly describes writing conventions for standard paragraphs?
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Which statement hest describes George Daniels' interest in watches？
A．His interest in watches was strong because his father was a watchmaker.
B．His interest in watches grew because he had to repair watches when he was in the army.
C．His interest in watches started at school.
D．His interest in watches is lifelong.
